Leviticus 21.1-22:16; Ezekiel 44.15-31 compared with 1 Peter 2:9 (Isaiah 9:2; Acts 26:17-18 “out of darkness…”) In light of 1 Peter 2:9a, how do the Leviticus and Ezekiel passages apply (being that Peter is speaking in Judaic terms whether intentionally or not; the metaphor exists; proclamation stands)? Is the term/role priest accurately interpreted and executed in New Testament literature and current times? If so, how?
The Bell Reader 